The American Politics Discussion Thread
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November 7th, 2012 (08:27 PM).
Join Date: Jun 2009
Quote originally posted by
Puerto Rico is, by law, required to allow certian individuals to vote via absentee ballet.
Essentially, the law is forcing them to allow certian, select and or privilaged, individuals to vote while the vast majority of Puerto Ricans are, legally, prevented from voting.
This is where things get real fuzzy.
If you have to reside in a state to vote, when why do we have UOCAVA? The information I'm finding is conflicting, some saying that UOCAVA lets a small number of people in Puerto Rico to vote and then some say that no one, at all, in Puerto Rico is allowed to vote.
Really, what needs to be done is some clarity. We either need to limit voting rights to only US citizens currently residing in the US, or we need to give voting rights to all US citizens, no matter their current residence. Voting rights can still be denied, either way, to those that have commited serious crimes in accordance with state and/or territorial laws.
Edit - This is made even worse as we have signed and ratified ICCPR, yet we have yet to comply with any of it. Keep in mind, that we signed and ratified this 20 years ago. Seriously, if we want to play International Politics then we need to start following though on things that we say, to the international community, we will do.
And again, the US was born from a rebellion because we, at the time British Citizens, were not given representation. I find it, very sad and slightly ironic, that we are now denying our own citizens the right to representation.
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Puerto Rico can choose to become a state, then the people there will have representation.
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