Strictly speaking, no it's not. If the statement that exactly two of the statements are false is, in fact, false then it follows that any number of the statements other than two can be false. Ergo, either all are true, all are false, or one is false, though all of them can't be true because we have already confirmed that the third statement is false.
Hence, it is provable that one of the first two statements is false and the other true but you can not prove which is which. It's not a paradox; just an ambiguity. ;D
(unless of course both are false and the thrid statement is true in which case I'm a genderless android; the world may never know)